UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 02 to March 08, 2025

QUESTION 1

With reference to the copper, consider the following statements:

1. Due to high domestic ore production, India’s copper concentrate exports have doubled in value terms in 2023-24 from 2018-19.

2. It is listed as a critical mineral in India.

3. Zambia is the largest producer of copper in the world.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The government announced the acquisition of a 9,000-square-kilometer block to explore copper and cobalt in Zambia, a location recognised for high-grade resources.

— Demand for copper, driven by electric vehicle (EV) batteries and renewable energy technologies, is expected to outpace mine production by 2035, prompting countries like India, China, and the United States to secure supply chains and enhance domestic capabilities.

— Copper is classified as a critical mineral in India. Domestic ore output for 2023-24 was 3.78 million tonnes (mt), 8% lower than in 2018-19. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Due to stagnating domestic ore output, India’s copper concentrate imports have doubled in value to Rs 26,000 crore in 2023-24 from 2018-19. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— While India has enormous copper reserves, they require lengthy exploration before mining can begin. A copper mine can be operating for up to 17 years on average around the world.

— Zambia is the seventh largest copper producer in the world. (Chile, Peru, and DRC are ranked first, second, and third, respectively.) Canada’s First Quantum Minerals and China’s state-owned Nonferrous Metal Mining are two of the country’s top copper producers. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the process of delimitation, consider the following statements:

1. The speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints a Delimitation Commission headed by a retired judge of the Supreme Court.

2. Associate members are appointed for each state or Union Territory undergoing delimitation, these members do not have decision-making powers or the right to vote.

3. The revised boundaries drawn by the commission can be challenged in court.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Home Minister Amit Shah guaranteed southern states that they will not lose “even a single seat” following the redrawing of constituencies.

— Constituency boundaries reflect the constitution’s commitment to a fair and representative electoral structure, as well as equitable representation of citizens in elected bodies.

— Following the 1951 Census, the Delimitation Commission Act of 1952 established the first Delimitation Commission to determine the borders of Lok Sabha and state Assembly constituencies.

— The President selects a Delimitation Commission, led by a retired Supreme Court judge and composed of the Chief Election Commissioner or his representative, as well as the State Election Commissioners. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— In addition, associate (or co-opted) members are appointed for each state or Union Territory being delimited. These members are sitting MPs appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha and MLAs appointed by the Speaker of the respective Legislative Assembly.

— Associate members contribute feedback and recommendations, but they do not have decision-making authority or the right to vote on any topic. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Commission acts independently of the government, and the amended boundaries it established cannot be challenged in court. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Which of the following countries have a popular citizenship by investment (CBI) or “golden passport” program, which allows wealthy individuals to purchase its passport?

(a) Fiji

(b) New Zealand

(c) Vanuatu

(d) Iceland

Explanation

— Former IPL chairman Lalit Modi has requested to renounce his passport to the Indian High Commission in London and become a citizen of Vanuatu, a small South Pacific island nation.

— Vanuatu offers a popular citizenship by investment (CBI) or “golden passport” program in which affluent persons can purchase a passport.

— CBI, or economic citizenship, permits persons to get citizenship in a country by making large financial contributions to its economy. Countries around the world grant citizenship to foreigners in order to attract investment and boost economic growth.

— Malta, Turkey, Montenegro, Antigua & Barbuda, Dominica, and Egypt all have CBI schemes.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Which of the following Delhi Sultan bestowed upon Khusrau the title of ‘Amir’?

(a) Alauddin Khalji

(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

(c) Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah

(d) Jalaluddin Khalji

Explanation

— In his address to the 25th edition of Jahan-e-Khusrau in New Delhi’s Sunder Nursery, Prime Minister Narendra Modi characterised the annual music festival commemorating Sufi poet-musician Amir Khusrau as imbued with the “fragrance of the soil of Hindustan”.

— Khusrau made significant contributions to Indian classical music, Sufi qawwali, and Persian literature. He is also credited with inventing Hindavi, a forerunner to contemporary Hindi and Urdu.

— Khusrau’s father most likely travelled to India from Central Asia in the early 13th century, when Genghis Khan’s Mongol hordes ravaged Islamic Transoxiana (modern-day Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, southern Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, and Kyrgyzstan). He began working for Sultan Iltutmish (1211-36) and married the daughter of an Indian Muslim. The couple’s second child, Abu’l Hasan Yamin ud-Din Khusrau, was born in 1253.

— The court poet relied on his patron’s ongoing patronage and was constantly up against stiff competition. Over the course of five decades, Amir Khusrau served at least five Sultans—Muiz ud din Qaiqabad, Jalaluddin Khalji, Alauddin Khalji, Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah, and Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq—as well as numerous other strong patrons, demonstrating the excellence of his poetry. He wrote in both Persian (the court language) and Hindavi.

— Sultan Jalaluddin Khalji gave Khusrau the title of ‘Amir’.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Cyclone Alfred was recently in the news. It is making its way towards:

(a) Maldives

(b) Indonesia

(c) Bangladesh

(d) Australia

Explanation

— Cyclone Alfred is on its way to Australia’s east coast, threatening to drop tremendous amounts of rain in a region unprepared for such tropical storms.

— The cyclone is remarkable for two reasons: it developed far south and is moving slowly. Both of these factors make it more risky.

— Alfred is on its way to the southeast Queensland coast, according to the Australian Bureau of Meteorology. It is a category 2 storm (based on wind intensity), with sustained winds in the centre of 95 kilometres per hour and wind gusts of up to 130 kilometres per hour. It is anticipated to “affect Double Island Point in Queensland to Grafton in New South Wales, including Brisbane, Gold Coast, Sunshine Coast, Byron Bay and Ballina.”

— Cyclones usually strike northern Australia. In reality, the last cyclone to strike the Gold Coast was Cyclone Zoe in 1974. The south of Australia is more densely inhabited, with Brisbane being the country’s third most populous metropolis.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Miyawaki technique, consider the following statements:

1. This technique was devised in the 1970s, aimed at restoring the native forests in Japan that deteriorated due to urban development over time.

2. Under Miyawaki technique, the plants are mostly self-sustaining after the initial period and don’t require regular maintenance like manuring and watering.

3. Recently, the Uttar Pradesh government employed the Miyawaki technique for creating “oxygen banks” and repopulating forests in urban areas.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The 45-day Maha Kumbh celebration finished on February 26, with nearly 66 crore people visiting Prayagraj, according to government figures. As part of its beauty and cleaning projects, the Uttar Pradesh government used the Miyawaki technique, a Japanese afforestation method for generating “oxygen banks” and repopulating urban woods. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Akira Miyawaki, a Japanese botanist, developed the Miyawaki approach in the 1970s to restore Japan’s native woods, which had deteriorated over time owing to urban expansion. He was inspired by Japan’s age-old holy shrine forests (“Chinju no Mori”), which are customarily built around Shinto shrines. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Miyawaki method is planting a high number of native plants and saplings in a short space to create an ecosystem that resembles a forest. The soil structure and quality must be compatible with the conditions of the plants’ natural environment, as well as the local climate.

Advantages of Miyawaki technique

— The Miyawaki method is most commonly used in cities because it allows for the growth of a large number of plants in a little space.

— Following the initial time, the plants are mainly self-sufficient and do not require regular maintenance such as manuring and watering. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The plants also serve to regulate local temperature by transpiring and providing shade.

— Increasing concretisation and construction activity in urban areas have frequently contributed to a greater average temperature compared to outlying areas, known as the “heat island” effect. Miyawaki woodlands can help mitigate this.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following crops has been affected by the whiteflies and pink bollworms?

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(c) Wheat

(d) Mustard

Explanation

— In recent years, whiteflies and pink bollworms have decimated the cotton crop in North India.

— Cotton yields are declining, as is the area under cotton production – the crop was grown on only one lakh hectares in Punjab in 2024, down from roughly eight lakh hectares three decades before.

— Farmers are appealing for the rapid approval of Bollgard-3, a new pest-resistant genetically modified (GM) cotton type created by Monsanto, ahead of the cotton sowing season.

— Monsanto created Bollgard-3 over a decade ago, and it is highly resistant to pests. It contains three Bt proteins: Cry1Ac, Cry2Ab, and Vip3A, which kill insects by interrupting their normal gastrointestinal function. This, in turn, promotes the growth of a better cotton crop, increasing production.

— Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a soil-dwelling bacteria that has strong insecticidal characteristics. In recent decades, researchers have successfully put particular Bt genes into several crops, such as cotton, to provide insect repellant qualities.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

The Arab League, formally known as the League of Arab States, was established in 1945 with initially just six nations. Which of the following were among the six countries?

1. Egypt

2. Iraq

3. Turkey

4. Saudi Arabia

5. Iran

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

— An Arab League Emergency Summit accepted a $53 billion Egyptian plan for Gaza rehabilitation as a “comprehensive Arab strategy” on March 4.

— The Summit took place in Cairo a day after Israel cut off all humanitarian supply to the devastated Palestinian enclave, marking the conclusion of the first phase of the Israel-Hamas Agreement.

— The Arab League, officially known as the League of Arab States, was founded in 1945 with only six members: Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria. It currently has 22 member governments that have agreed to cooperate on economic and military matters, among other things.

— The Cairo Declaration follows the Bahrain Declaration issued at the last Arab League Summit in Manama in May 2024.

— The proposal reiterates the Bahrain Declaration’s call for UN peacekeeping forces in Gaza and the West Bank, a plan that Israel backed until March 2024.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

What refers to the field of computer science which aims to make computer systems think, reason, learn, and act to solve a complex system like humans?

(a) Training Data

(b) Deep Learning

(c) Machine Learning

(d) Artificial Intelligence

Explanation

— Artificial intelligence (AI) is a branch of computer science that seeks to make computer systems think, reason, learn, and act in order to solve complicated problems similar to those of humans.

— McCarthy invented the term “artificial intelligence”. “McCarthy later admitted that no one really liked the name — after all, the goal was genuine, not ‘artificial’, intelligence — but ‘I had to call it something, so I called it “Artificial Intelligence”,'” writes Melanie Mitchell in her book, ‘Artificial Intelligence: A Guide for Thinking Humans’.

What is machine learning?

— Machine learning (ML) is used to allow computer systems to learn and perform tasks autonomously (i.e., without being instructed). ML is implemented by training (a word that will be described further in following explainers) computers on data in order for them to predict new information.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), consider the following statements:

1. It was started in 2022 with an aim to provide medium to long-term financing for agriculture infrastructure projects at the post-harvest stage.

2. Madhya Pradesh ranks at number 1 in the country in implementing this scheme and has utilised 100 per cent funds allocated to it by the Centre under the AIF scheme.

3. This scheme does not offer credit guarantees and interest subvention.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Punjab has spent 100% of the Rs 4,713 crore given to it by the Centre under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme. Punjab now ranks first in the country for executing this scheme, and it has received an additional Rs 2,337 crore allocation. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) was established in July 2020 with the goal of providing medium to long-term funding for agricultural infrastructure projects in the post-harvest phase. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— This scheme provides credit guarantees and interest subsidy. Farmers, agripreneurs, primary agriculture cooperative societies, farmer producer organisations, start-ups, state-sponsored public-private partnerships, and state agencies can all apply for financing under this program. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— When the scheme first began, it was intended for primary-level post-harvest management and processing, but it has now expanded to encompass integrated secondary-level processing. For example, a kinnow farmer could previously get payments under the program for crop grading, waxing, and packaging (main post-harvest operations), but beginning August 2024, he can also use the funds to make and sell juices, jams, and other products from his kinnow output (secondary). However, secondary level funds are only available to individuals involved in primary processing.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

Which of the following principles explains how a cricket ball swings due to the differential air pressure on its sides when it is bowled with spin?

(a) Newton’s Third Law of Motion

(b) Bernoulli’s Principle

(c) Archimedes’ Principle

(d) Pascal’s Law

Explanation

— Indian pacer Mohammad Shami on Thursday (March 6) appealed to the ICC to lift the ban on using saliva to shine cricket balls that was introduced during the Covid-19 pandemic.

— Since 2011, two balls have been used per innings in ODIs. This means that balls are not as scuffed up as they used to be. Add to this the prohibition on using saliva, generating reverse swing has gotten much more difficult.

— “We are trying to reverse, but you are not getting the use of saliva into the game,” Shami told reporters in Dubai.

What is swing? Why does a cricket ball swing?

— Swing refers to the lateral movement of a cricket ball in the air, before it lands on the pitch. It is essentially a product of an air pressure differential on either side of the ball.

— A thin layer of air forms along the ball’s surface after it is released by the bowler. But the so-called “boundary layer” must separate from the surface at some point. Where this separation occurs on either side of the ball determines the air pressure on that side.

— Bowlers generally tilt the seam towards one direction or the other. In a new ball, the raised seam disturbs the airflow on the side towards which it is tilted. This turbulent flow on the seam side sticks to the ball’s surface longer and travels faster than the smooth laminar flow on the other side.

— According to Bernoulli’s principle, faster travelling air on the seam side results in a decrease of air pressure on that side, making the ball swing in that direction. In theory, a new ball that is held straight — with the seam perfectly aligned to the direction it is travelling — will not swing because the airflow on both sides of the ball is even.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Why is Clara Zetkin known in history?

(a) She founded the new science of radioactivity and her discoveries launched effective cures for cancer.

(b) She was a founding member of a group of women called the Suffragettes, who fought incredibly hard to get women the right to vote in the UK.

(c) A mathematician who is considered to be the first computer programmer.

(d) She was a German leader who engaged with the question of women within the socialist movement and tabled the idea of an International Women’s Day which continues to be marked worldwide.

Explanation

— In 1910, the second International Conference of Working Women was held in Copenhagen, Denmark. At a time when women’s participation as working professionals was exceedingly rare, 100 women from 17 countries – representing unions, socialist parties, working women’s clubs – came together. One of them, Clara Zetkin, tabled the idea of an International Women’s Day which continues to be marked worldwide after more than a century.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Which of the following indices are not published or developed by UNDP?

(a) Gender Social Norms Index

(b) Gender Inequality Index

(c) Global Gender Gap Index

(d) Global Gender Parity Index

Explanation

— Global Gender Gap Index: The Global Gender Gap Index is released annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It benchmarks the current state and evolution of gender parity across four key dimensions: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. The index lies between 0 and 1, with 1 denoting complete parity.

— Iceland (93.5%) is again ranked 1st and has been leading the index for a decade and a half. Finland is ranked second and Norway is ranked third.

— India ranks 129 out of the 146 countries. This puts India at the 18th position from the bottom. In 2023, India stood at 127 rank out of the 146 countries.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

With reference to the results of the first-ever comprehensive population estimation of riverine dolphins, consider the following statements:

1. The process of echolocation was used in the survey.

2. It covered the main channels and tributaries of the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers, as well as the Beas river in Punjab.

3. The highest number of Gangetic dolphins were found in Assam.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Monday (March 3) released the results of the first-ever comprehensive population estimation of riverine dolphins – Gangetic and Indus dolphins – done in India.

— The survey was conducted across the Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins between 2021 and 2023. It estimated an average of 6,324 Gangetic dolphins, ranging from 5,977 to 6,688. The survey only found three Indus River dolphins in the Indus basin, all in the Beas River in Punjab.

— The first-of-its-kind exercise provides timely estimates of the endangered aquatic mammals, which face threats from pollution, riverbed mining, low water depth, habitat damage, prey decline and climate change. Gangetic dolphins and Indus dolphins are classified as endangered and accorded the highest protection under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

— The estimation survey was done by the Wildlife Institute of India under the Union Environment Ministry between 2021 and 2023. It covered the main channels and tributaries of the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers, as well as the Beas river in Punjab. 28 rivers were surveyed by boat, and 30 were mapped by road. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The highest number of Gangetic dolphins, 2,397, was found in Uttar Pradesh. This was followed by 2,220 in Bihar, and 815 in West Bengal. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— A combination of visual and acoustic surveys is used. The acoustic survey uses multiple underwater microphones or hydrophones to capture ‘dolphin clicks.’ Dolphins, being functionally blind, navigate by making clicking sounds that travel through water and bounce back after hitting objects. This process is called echolocation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Recently, India have agreed to set up a Joint Economic Commission to increase bilateral trade, investment and technology ties with:

(a) Norway

(b) Finland

(c) Ireland

(d) Denmark

Explanation

— India and Ireland have decided to form a Joint Economic Commission to boost bilateral trade, investment, and technology links, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar declared after meeting with his Irish counterpart in Dublin.

— Jaishankar and Simon Harris also agreed on an action plan to strengthen the India-Irish collaboration, which was a highlight of the first visit by an Indian external affairs minister to Ireland and the first high-level political visit from India since Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit in 2015.

— “We talked about our bilateral cooperation, including a new Action Plan to strengthen ties. We agreed to establish a Joint Economic Commission (JEC) to strengthen our trade, investment, and technological ties,” Jaishankar wrote on social media.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 23 to March 01, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 16 to February 22, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 9 to February 15, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 2 to February 8, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 26 to February 1, 2025

Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.

Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.